GTU · BE Mechanical · Semester 5

GTU 3151911 Dynamics of Machinery Old Question Papers & Solutions PDF

Official Gujarat Technological University (GTU) old question papers PDF (Regular & Remedial) and step-by-step solved questions for Dynamics of Machinery across 2023 – 2026 examinations.

6 papers, 2023 – 202670 marks23 to pass2.5 hours
21 questions GTU asked more than onceAsked in all 4 papers: An aeroplane makes a complete half circle of 60 m radius towards left when flying at 250 km/h. The rotary engine and the propeller of the plane have a mass of 450 kg with a radius of gyration of 300 mm. The engine runs at 2400 rpm clockwise when viewed from the rear. Find the gyroscopic effect on the aircraft.See list

Exam papers

Most repeated questions

21 questions GTU set in two or more of 4 papers, most repeated first. Tap a year to open that paper at the question.

  1. An aeroplane makes a complete half circle of 60 m radius towards left when flying at 250 km/h. The rotary engine and the propeller of the plane have a mass of 450 kg with a radius of gyration of 300 mm. The engine runs at 2400 rpm clockwise when viewed from the rear. Find the gyroscopic effect on the aircraft.

    4 marksSame type asked in 4 of 4 papers

    Summer 2026 Q2b Summer 2025 Q2c Summer 2024 Q4c Summer 2024 Q4c OR Summer 2023 Q5c

  2. Define static and dynamic balancing with examples.

    3 marksAsked in 4 of 4 papers

    Summer 2026 Q5a Summer 2025 Q1a Summer 2024 Q2b Summer 2023 Q5a

  3. The following data refer to an outside cylinder uncoupled locomotive: Mass of rotating parts per cylinder = 350 kg Mass of reciprocating parts per cylinder = 300 kg Angle between cranks = 90o Crank radius = 0.3 m Cylinder centers = 1.8 m Radius of balance masses = 0.8 m Wheel centers = 1.5 m If whole of the rotating and 2/3rd of the reciprocating parts is to be balanced in planes of the driving wheels, find (a) magnitude and angular positions of balance masses, (b) speed in km/h at which the wheel will lift off the rails when the load on each driving wheel is 30 kN, and the diameter of tread of driving wheels is 1.8 m

    7 marksSame type asked in 3 of 4 papers

    Summer 2026 Q5c Summer 2025 Q4c Summer 2023 Q1c

  4. A spring-mass system consists of a spring of stiffness 350 N/m. The mass is 0.35 kg. The mass is displaced 20 mm beyond the equilibrium position and released. The damping coefficient is 14 N.s/m. Determine (a) critical damping coefficient, (b) damped natural frequency, and (c) logarithmic decrement.

    7 marksSame type asked in 3 of 4 papers

    Summer 2026 Q2c Summer 2026 Q2c OR Summer 2024 Q2c Summer 2023 Q4c OR

  5. A single cylinder vertical petrol engine of total mass 300 kg is mounted upon a steel chassis frame and causes a vertical static deflection of 2 mm. The reciprocating parts of the engine has a mass of 20 kg and move through a vertical stroke of 150 mm with simple harmonic motion. A dashpot is provided whose damping resistance is directly proportional to the velocity and amounts to 1.5 kN per meter per second. Examine the effect of forced vibration considering that the steady state of vibration is reached and determine the amplitude of forced vibrations, when the driving shaft of the engine rotates at 480 r.p.m., and the speed of the driving shaft at which resonance will occur.

    7 marksSame type asked in 3 of 4 papers

    Summer 2026 Q4c Summer 2025 Q5c OR Summer 2023 Q3c OR

  6. A solid shaft of uniform diameter is supported by two short-bearings as shown in Figure 1. The above shaft carries two discs having concentrated masses of 60 kg and 100 kg respectively. Determine the fundamental frequency of vibration if the moment of inertia of the shaft is 40 x 10⁴ mm⁴ and damping at the bearing is neglected.

    7 marksSame type asked in 3 of 4 papers

    Summer 2026 Q3c Summer 2025 Q5c Summer 2024 Q2c OR Summer 2024 Q4b

  7. Calculate the inertia force in a slider-crank mechanism given crank speed and dimensions.

    4 marksSame type asked in 3 of 4 papers

    Summer 2026 Q1b Summer 2025 Q3c Summer 2023 Q2c OR

  8. State D’Alembert’s principle and explain its significance in dynamic analysis.

    3 marksAsked in 3 of 4 papers

    Summer 2026 Q1a Summer 2025 Q3b Summer 2023 Q4a

  9. Explain the magnification factor. Write an expression of it. What is the role of magnification factor in vibrations.

    3 marksAsked in 3 of 4 papers

    Summer 2025 Q5a OR Summer 2024 Q3b OR Summer 2023 Q2a

  10. Analyze the effect of gyroscopic couple on the stability of a two-wheeler during a turn.

    3 marksAsked in 3 of 4 papers

    Summer 2026 Q2a Summer 2025 Q3b OR Summer 2023 Q1a Summer 2023 Q5b

Show 11 more repeated questionsHide the 11 more
  1. Explain inline engines and procedure of balancing of inline engines.

    7 marksAsked in 2 of 4 papers

    Summer 2025 Q1c Summer 2023 Q3b

  2. Determine the power required and mass of the flywheel to operate the punching press with following data: maximum and minimum speed of rotation of flywheel 250 rpm and 225 rpm respectively, and radius of gyration is 500 mm. The press is driven by a constant torque electric motor and punches 750 holes per hour. Each punching operation requires 14000 N-m of energy and takes 1.8 seconds.

    7 marksSame type asked in 2 of 4 papers

    Summer 2025 Q3c OR Summer 2023 Q4c

  3. A rotor is completely balanced when masses of 2 kg and 1.2 kg are added temporarily in planes A and D each at 200 mm radius as shown in Fig. 1. The balanced mass in the plane A is along the x-axis whereas in the plane D, it is at 120° counter-clockwise. It is desired that the actual balancing is to be done by adding permanent masses in planes B and C, each at 120 mm radius. Determine the magnitudes and the directions of the masses B.

    7 marksSame type asked in 2 of 4 papers

    Summer 2024 Q5c OR Summer 2023 Q3c

  4. Explain the partial balancing of primary unbalanced forces in single cylinder reciprocating engine.

    4 marksAsked in 2 of 4 papers

    Summer 2026 Q5b OR Summer 2024 Q3c OR

  5. Analyze the role of a flywheel in punching presses.

    4 marksAsked in 2 of 4 papers

    Summer 2026 Q3b OR Summer 2025 Q1b

  6. Derive an expression for critically damped system.

    4 marksAsked in 2 of 4 papers

    Summer 2025 Q4b OR Summer 2023 Q4b OR

  7. Explain with neat sketch vibration measuring instrument.

    4 marksAsked in 2 of 4 papers

    Summer 2025 Q5b Summer 2023 Q3b OR

  8. Explain vibration isolation and Transmissibility.

    3 marksAsked in 2 of 4 papers

    Summer 2026 Q4a OR Summer 2025 Q5a

  9. Define imaginary crank using neat sketch with regard to the balancing of reciprocating secondary unbalanced forces.

    3 marksAsked in 2 of 4 papers

    Summer 2026 Q5a OR Summer 2024 Q3a OR

  10. Define the terms:

    3 marksAsked in 2 of 4 papers

    Summer 2025 Q2a Summer 2023 Q4a OR

  11. Explain logarithmic decrement and its use.

    3 marksAsked in 2 of 4 papers

    Summer 2026 Q4a Summer 2024 Q5a OR

Which branches take this subject

GTU's syllabus lists 3151911 for 2 branches. One set of papers serves all of them.

Semester 5: 2 branches

Automobile Engineering, Mechanical Engineering

Other Semester 5 subjects

Common questions

Are these GTU 3151911 Dynamics of Machinery papers valid for both Regular and Remedial exams?

Yes. Gujarat Technological University (GTU) follows the same 70-mark syllabus, exam blueprint, and 23-mark passing cutoff for both Regular and Remedial (ATKT/backlog) examinations. All 6 past exam sessions (2023 – 2026) serve as comprehensive preparation for either attempt.

How can I download GTU 3151911 Dynamics of Machinery old question papers PDF?

You can download official GTU 3151911 original question paper PDFs directly from the table above with 1 click and zero deceptive ads or wait timers. Every paper also includes interactive online questions with AI study prompts.

What is the passing mark for GTU Dynamics of Machinery (3151911)?

The external theory exam carries 70 marks. The minimum passing cutoff is 23 marks (33%). Exam duration is 2.5 hours.

What is the GTU exam pattern for 3151911?

The examination contains 5 main questions of 14 marks each, totaling 70 marks. Questions 2 through 5 provide internal OR choices, typically split into 3-mark, 4-mark, and 7-mark questions.